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I was watching "Last exit to Springfield" and I noticed a problem at the first union meeting: One of the additions to the contract obviously was the keg of beer in exchange for the dental plan. The beer was provided at the meeting, and presumably the union consumed it since we see glasses full of beer. Now, presuming that the prior contract was still in effect at that point and also that it contained a provision agreeing that there will not be a strike, it seems that an arbitration would favor Burns since there was a strike at the second meeting.
I'm not a lawyer, so I ask, if anyone here is, which party would receive award if there were to be a grievance filed? Burns supplied the beer BEFORE the contract was signed, so if the prior contract did NOT prohibit strikes then I believe the union would win. Also, would there be any difference at all depending on whether the beer was consumed or not? Could Burns be penalized for presuming that the union would accept his terms, thus supplying the beer?
All this presumes that the strike took place before the termination date of the prior contract.
Anyway, thanks for helping me sort all this out.
XINO